Correction Check: Let's re-evaluate.
The machine does not multiply force. It only changes the direction of the force (e.g., a fixed pulley). Question: Can a machine have an IMA less than 1?
Efficiency=(WoutWin)×100%Efficiency equals open paren the fraction with numerator cap W sub out end-sub and denominator cap W sub in end-sub end-fraction close paren cross 100 % Alternatively, using mechanical advantage:
:
Efficiency=(Work OutputWork Input)×100Efficiency equals open paren the fraction with numerator Work Output and denominator Work Input end-fraction close paren cross 100
(1) 80 N, (2) 12, (3) 70%, (4) False – Friction always exists.
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Mechanical advantage describes how much a machine multiplies the input force you apply to it. There are two ways to calculate this depending on whether you are measuring forces or distances.
There are two primary ways to calculate mechanical advantage: and Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) . Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA)
Key Concept: Because friction is ignored, IMA is a theoretical maximum. Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA) Question: Can a machine have an IMA less than 1
"And," added Sam, tapping his pencil on a thick textbook, "we have to fill out the lab report. We need to calculate the Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA) and the Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) to determine if the system is even safe to use."
IMA=Input DistanceOutput DistanceIMA equals the fraction with numerator Input Distance and denominator Output Distance end-fraction 2. Efficiency
A ramp is 10 meters long and 2 meters high. What is the IMA? Solution: This link or copies made by others cannot be deleted
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